When discussing GMM estimation, Toni Whited and Luke Taylor suggest to reduce heterogeneity by ''eliminating fixed effects,'' see here on Taylor's slides (slide 36):
My question: I'm not quite sure what they mean with this statement and how to implement it.
My aim is to use portfolio returns to calculate the moment conditions. Let $R_{i,t}$ denote monthly returns. Following wikipedia, I can
- use the fixed effects estimator (essentially demean the returns within firms/months)
In this case, I do not only subtract the means $\frac{1}{T}\sum\limits_t R_{i,t}$ and $\frac{1}{N}\sum\limits_i R_{i,t}$ but also the cross-term $\frac{1}{T}\frac{1}{N}\sum_\limits{i}\sum\limits_t R_{i,t}$?
- subtract lagged values in a first-difference way
In this case, I can consider $\Delta R_{i,t}=R_{i,t}-R_{i,t-1}$ but what would be the cross-sectional lag term? $R_{i,t}-R_{i-1,t}$ does not make sense, does it?
In the end, I compute the GMM moment conditions from either the (properly) demeaned returns or the (somehow?) first differenced returns?