Say I have a set of participants and I follow them for a year to see when they first produce two behaviors, A and B. I'm interested in whether there is a relationship between the onset of these two behaviours. My overall question is: is it appropriate to conduct a regression analysis predicted the age-of-onset of behaviour B using the age-of-onset of behaviour A? Or to run a correlation between ages of onset (A) and ages of onset (B)?
I'm aware that generally, if you're interested in the appearance of some event, it is best practice to use a Cox regression to deal with censoring issues (since the event may not occur). However, there are a few reasons I don't want to here (just bare with me on this!):
- I know every age of onset for every participant.
- I'm not interested in the time-to-event per se, just whether the onset of behaviour A is related to the onset of behavior B- specifically, do those who tend to produce behaviour A earlier tend to produce behaviour B earlier?
I suppose I could have time-varying covariates here for each participant in a Cox regression. But surely just running a simple regression with ages-of-onset is simpler and still addresses my main question?
Is there any reason this is problematic, other than generally for a study you wouldn't know every age of onset? I'm unsure as I can't find any discussion of this anywhere online. Conceptually I can't see any issues, but I would appreciate guidance on this.