I am currently trying to understand why normalizing flows are not applicable to discrete distributions (a quick primer on NF can be found here). The assumptions on the transformation f between the probability distributions are:
f
must be an invertible functionf
must be a smooth function
Assume I want to learn a normalizing flow between a Poisson and a Normal distribution.
If I discretize my Normal distribution, both have an infinite support, i.e., the same number of support elements and hence, I can find an invertible mapping between them (another option would be to consider only the first n natural numbers for the Poisson distribution and also select n elements from the Normal distribution).
Moreover, when I am training a Normalizing Flow on my computer, I never have continuous data - instead, I have discrete samples from my distribution. So, where is the issue with taking these samples from a discrete distribution now? Unfortunately, I cannot see the difference to the case where I am trying to map between two Normal distributions: if I sample from a Normal distribution I have discrete samples as well.
Thanks in advance!