My question relates on the Ridge vs Lasso Regression. I know the difference in the cost function (ridge penalizes sum of quadratic coefficients, lasso penalizes sum of absolute value of coefficients). Moreover, I also know that Lasso is able of reducing some coefficients completely to zero while ridge only does towards zero.
So my question is whether one can therefore say from a theoretical perspective that Lasso should have a lower variance (generalizes better) but a higher bias than Ridge because of the above mentioned property of reducing coefficients completely to zero (of course if one applies the same strength of regularization for both of them)?
Thank you.