Here are some commonly seen statements about the importance of prevalence in the train and test sets when developing a classifier:
"Another reason not to rebalance datasets is that models should be trained on datasets whose distributions will reflect the future, real-world test cases for which they will ultimately be applied." https://towardsdatascience.com/why-balancing-classes-is-over-hyped-e382a8a410f7
"It is simply the case that a classifier trained to a 1/2 prevalence situation will not be applicable to a population with a 1/1000 prevalence." https://www.fharrell.com/post/classification/
"fans of “classifiers” sometimes subsample from observations in the most frequent outcome category (here Y=1) to get an artificial 50/50 balance of Y=0 and Y=1 when developing their classifier. Fans of such deficient notions of accuracy fail to realize that their classifier will not apply to a population when a much different prevalence of Y=1 than 0.5." https://www.fharrell.com/post/classification/*
These statements are so obvious that there is no explanation for it. But I struggle to understand, why is that the case?
In the typical situation that we are using a deterministic model + a decision boundary to perform classification (e.g. logistic regression, or a neural network), how does class prevalence in the test set really affecting the model results?
Prevalence might affect the training of a model if there are too few samples to be able to learn relevant features to distinguish a given class. Here we have the common example of a naive classifier trained on a heavily imbalanced training set measured on accuracy, where it will learn to only predict the majority class.
But once the classifier has learnt relevant features, predictions will be deterministic. It does not matter if we feed a single example in testing (prevalence = 100%), two examples of each class (prevalence = 50%) or 99:1 examples (prevalence 1%). The prediction for that one exemplar will always be the same.
If we have a very imbalanced data set (say 99:1 for two classes), I dont see why balancing the training set would introduce any problems. The training set would have an artificial prevalence of 50/50, to make sure the model learns relevant features for both classes (given there are still enough training examples for each one), and then this model can be deployed in a natural test set. If the test set has a prevalence of 99:1, the model has no awareness of it. Is this thinking wrong?
As pointed out here Different number of samples (observations) per class (one vs. all classification), a classifier is the likelihood function in a Bayesian model, and it is independent of prior probabilities (prevalence). Specifically in machine learning we don't use probabilistic models, but deterministic, where the Likelihood just gives out a point estimate for the model parameters. If we are interested in modeling a posterior probability, then we can combine the likelihood with priors, but that is a different statement and apporach that the usual approach in classification algorithms.
Are the initial statements about prevalence really applicable to deterministic models, or is there something else I am missing? Does a deterministic model really learn to mimic the prevalence of a training population?