I am Looking for the Reason That we do not Need Normal distribution on Independent and dependent variables in Logistic Regression, can anybody explain it ?
Why We Don't Need Normal distribution on Independent and dependent variables in Logistic Regression?
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2$\begingroup$ Welcome to CV. Since you’re new here, you may want to take our tour, which has information for new users. Since this looks like homework (apologies if it's not), please add the [self-study] tag and read its wiki. Then tell us what you understand thus far, what you've tried & where you're stuck. We'll provide hints to help you get unstuck. Please make these changes as just posting your homework & hoping someone will do it for you is grounds for closing. If this is self-study rather than homework, let us know, and... it's still a good idea to show us what you've tried. $\endgroup$– jbowmanCommented Dec 20, 2022 at 18:00
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1$\begingroup$ Your phrasing suggests to me that believe these to be needed in other forms of regression, such as linear regression. If you do believe this, it would be helpful to say what you believe about that, as there are common misconceptions surrounding these, and I expect it to be easier to believe that normality is not necessary for logistic regression once you believe it it not necessary for linear regression. $\endgroup$– DaveCommented Dec 20, 2022 at 18:07
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2$\begingroup$ Because the dependent variable in logistic regression can, by definition, take on only two possible values, a Normal distribution would be a spectacularly poor model for its conditional distribution. $\endgroup$– whuber ♦Commented Dec 20, 2022 at 18:50
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$\begingroup$ @jbowman Thank You. No It is not for my homework, i am just want to work on logestic regression and now i am reading about it. i read about LR assumption and every where people said that LR don't need any normality (not in independent variable, not in dependent and not in error term) but no where they explain about whay LR dont need normality and because i am new to this things i can't undrestand why. $\endgroup$– nasim_bbCommented Dec 20, 2022 at 19:20
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2$\begingroup$ Things to ponder: 1) Why would they require normality? After all, we can ask why don't we need Cauchy independent variables, Laplace independent variables, or... just as easily as Normal independent variables. 2) Think of sex (0/1) as an independent variable - would it be invalid to have sex as an independent variable because it's not Normally distributed? $\endgroup$– jbowmanCommented Dec 20, 2022 at 19:29
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