I am looking at an I(1) process for an AR(3) model: $$x_t=\theta_1x_{t-1}+\theta_2x_{t-2}+\theta_3x_{t-3}+\varepsilon_t$$ I rewrite it using the lag-operator: $$(1-\theta_1L-\theta_2L^2-\theta_3L^3)x_t=\varepsilon_t$$ And the I factorise the characteristic polynomial: $$(1-\theta_1z-\theta_2z^2-\theta_3z^3)=(1-\phi_1z)(1-\phi_2z)(1-\phi_3z)$$ Where $\phi_1,\phi_2$ and $\phi_3$ are the inverse roots.
Because it is an I(1) process there is obviously only one unit root such that $\phi_1=1$ and it must hold that $|\phi_2|<1$ and $|\phi_3|<1$.
Where I am stuck is that many textbooks then say that because $|\phi_2|<1$ is invertible is can then rewrite it as: $$\frac{1}{1-\phi_2z}=1+\phi_2z+\phi_2^2z^2+\phi_2^3z^3+...$$
I hope someone can help me out with this :)
Cheers!