I am looking at covering circles for cartesian coordinates given by independent bivariate random variables $X, Y \sim N(0, \sigma)$.
The radius of a circle that will cover proportion p of these samples is given by the Rayleigh distribution quantile function: $R(p, \sigma) = \sigma \sqrt{-2 \ln(1-p)}$.
Interestingly, if the variance in each axis is unequal – $X \sim N(0, \sigma_x), Y \sim N(0, \sigma_y)$ – then the Rayleigh quantile function gives the semi-axes of a covering ellipse: I confirmed through Monte Carlo simulation that an ellipse with $a = \sigma_x \sqrt{-2 \ln(1-p)}$ and $b = \sigma_y \sqrt{-2 \ln(1-p)}$ covers exactly proportion p of such samples.
What is a formula for a covering circle in the unequal variance case?
I found that a circle based on the mean variance $\sigma_{xy}^2=\frac{\sigma_x^2+\sigma_y^2}{2}$ is always* larger than needed to cover proportion p. I.e., a circle with radius $R(p, \sqrt{\sigma_{xy}^2})$ always covers more than p of the samples. *ETA from comment and associated graph: This is true for p < ~79%; for larger p the circle always undercovers.
Here's an example showing the 60% covering ellipse in a scenario where $\sigma_x=2.5\sigma_y$. The red circle has radius = $\sqrt{\sigma_{xy}^2}$ and covers 65% of sample points.
(Given that the formula for the covering ellipse is so simple, I am hopeful that there is an elegant expression to circularize the unequal variance cases. I have a hunch that the normal quantile function provides information needed, and that the magic inflection point at 79% covering is exactly $\sqrt{2/\pi}$ which, i.a., is the mean of the standard half-normal. But I have minimal experience with this area of mathematics.)