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I imagine a scenario where two teams play each other having historical win percentages. Team $1$ is quite good and wins $60\%$ of its games. However, team $2$ is really good and wins $90\%$ of its games. When the teams meet, what is the probability that each team wins?

I tried to solve this using a multivariate approach, but it turns out not to be a multivariate problem. There are only two outcomes: $1)$ $\text{team 1 wins while team 2 loses}$, or $2)$ $\text{team 2 wins while team 1 loses}$. This is a (trivial variant of a) Bernoulli distribution: $P(\text{team 1 wins while team 2 loses}) = p$ and $P(\text{team 2 wins while team 1 loses}) = 1 - p$.

How should that $p$ be calculated?

In the above situation, the worse of the two teams, I figure, must have less than its historical victory probability of $0.6$. However, since the better team is facing a team that is pretty good (wins more than it loses), it also must have a probability of victory below its historical rate of $0.9$.

My naïve approach is to calculate the probabilities as the "proportion of victory probability owned by team" (as I'm calling it).

$$ P(\text{team 1 wins while team 2 loses}) = \dfrac{0.6}{0.6 + 0.9} = 0.4\\ P(\text{team 2 wins while team 1 loses}) = \dfrac{0.9}{0.6 + 0.9} = 0.6 $$

How reasonable is this calculation?

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    $\begingroup$ This is turning into a FAQ. The MFR (most frequent response) is that you don't have sufficient information. There are plausible scenarios that would justify literally any value of $p$ between 0% and 100%. For some intuition concerning your proposed formula, consider what value it would give when the two proportions are changed from 0.6 and 0.9 to $q=(n-2)/(2n-2)$ and $1.0,$ respectively, where there are $n$ teams and all have played each other many times. This describes a circumstance where an average team plays a team that always wins; so is $1/(1+q)$ a reasonable estimate?? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jan 2 at 19:42
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    $\begingroup$ I wonder how much the proliferation of sports betting in the US is causing the increased interest in questions of this type. $\endgroup$
    – Sycorax
    Commented Jan 3 at 1:22

2 Answers 2

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However, since the better team is facing a team that is pretty good (wins more than it loses), it also must have a probability of victory below its historical rate of 0.9

A bad team can win more than it looses when it has very bad opponents.

For example: If I play chess against Magnus Carlsen, then I won't be as good as his regular opponents. No matter whether I have 60% win rate or not, Carlsen will have better chances against me than 'normally' (than against his historical opponents).

My naïve approach is to calculate the probabilities as the "proportion of victory probability owned by team" (as I'm calling it).

$$ P(\text{team 1 wins while team 2 loses}) = \dfrac{0.6}{0.6 + 0.9} = > 0.4\\ P(\text{team 2 wins while team 1 loses}) = \dfrac{0.9}{0.6 + 0.9} = 0.6 $$

How reasonable is this calculation?

Even when you ignore the idea that the two teams with 60% and 90% winrates may have different opponents of different strengths, then the percentages may not be compared without additional information. Say that the teams have opponents from the same pool, then still you can not say much about the probabilities for the wins in their match. An example is in the following model.

Consider a model game where two teams draw a random number from a normal distribution and the team with the highest number wins. A team might have different performance based on a different mean of their number. Say the draws are

$$X_A \sim N(\mu_A,\sigma^2) \\ X_B \sim N(\mu_B,\sigma^2) \\$$

and if $X_A>X_B$ then A wins and if $X_A< X_B$ then B wins.

To consider the performance against other teams we consider the performance of an other team $\mu_O$. Sometimes you face an opponent with a low $\mu_O$ and other times with a large $\mu_O$. Let's consider this to be distributed as normal

$$\mu_O \sim N(0,\sigma_O^2)$$

And the draw from another team is distributed as

$$X_O \sim N(0,\sigma_O^2+\sigma^2)$$

The difference in a match between the teams A and B and another team O will be distributed as

$$X_A-X_O \sim N(\mu_A,\sigma_O^2+2\sigma^2) \\ X_B-X_O \sim N(\mu_B,\sigma_O^2+2\sigma^2)$$

And we can determine $\mu_A$ and $\mu_B$ based on the 60-th and 90-th percentiles of the standard normal distribution.

$$\mu_A = q_{60} \sqrt{\sigma_O^2+2\sigma^2}\\ \mu_B = q_{90} \sqrt{\sigma_O^2+2\sigma^2}$$

Based on that we can compute the distribution of performance differences in a match between A and B

$$X_A-X_B \sim N(\mu_A-\mu_B,2\sigma^2)$$

and the probability for a win of A can be computed with the CDF of the standard normal distribution

$$P(X_A-X_B>0) = \Phi\left(\frac{\mu_A-\mu_B}{\sqrt{2\sigma^2}}\right) = \Phi\left((q_{60}-q_{90})\frac{\sqrt{\sigma_O+2\sigma^2}}{\sqrt{2\sigma^2}}\right)$$

and it depends on the ratio of within team performance variance $\sigma$ and between teams performance variance $\sigma_O$

example of variations in possible outcomes

sigma = 1
sigma_O = seq(0,4,0.01)


p = pnorm((qnorm(0.60)-qnorm(0.90))*sqrt(1+sigma_O^2/(2*sigma^2)))

plot(sigma_O/sigma, 1-p, main = "probability 90% team wins from 60% team", ylab = "probability")

The extreme situation of nearly 100% for large $\sigma_O/\sigma$ on the right side of the graph can be imagined intuitively with an athletics running duals/competition where players have little individual/personal variability and the randomness of winning depends on the variability in the opponents strengths. Say A always throws a ball around 30 meters and this makes them win about 60% of the duels, and B always throws a ball around 40 meters and this makes them win about 90% of the duels. The 40 meters is a lot more than 30 meters. Then, B will very likely win from A with nearly 100% probability.

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I agree with @whuber's comment on the original post. However, we can ask what additional assumptions, with the given information, could lead to an estimate.

Additional Assumptions:

  1. The stated win probabilities are good estimates of the outcome of a game for each team.
  2. The teams are playing two independent games
  3. The desired win probabilities are conditional on team A exclusively-or team B winning.

Essentially this is turning the fact that they are playing each other (where we don't have enough information) into a different situation with a result that can be estimated.

  • $P(A) = 0.6$
  • $P(B) = 0.9$
  • $P(A \cap \bar{B}|A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B) = \frac{P(A)P(\bar{B})}{P(A)P(\bar{B}) + P(\bar{A})P(B)} = 0.143$
  • $P(B \cap \bar{A}|A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B) = \frac{P(B)P(\bar{A})}{P(A)P(\bar{B}) + P(\bar{A})P(B)} = 0.857$

Why Condition on XOR?

If you think about the truth table for two independent events,

A B P if A,B independent Allowed in a head-to-head game? A xor B
W W 0.54 N F
W L 0.06 Y T
L W 0.36 Y T
L L 0.04 N F

How is the conditional probability constructed?

$$P(A \cap \bar{B}|A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B) = \frac{P((A \cap \bar{B}) \cap (A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B))}{P(A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B)} = \frac{P(A \cap \bar{B})}{P(A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B)} = \frac{P(A)P(\bar{B})}{P(A)P(\bar{B}) + P(\bar{A})P(B)}$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Why do you condition on $A\ \mathbf{xor}\ B?$ $\endgroup$
    – Dave
    Commented Jan 3 at 15:27
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    $\begingroup$ I used the exclusively-or operator since A,!B and !A,B are allowed, but A,B and !A,!B are not allowed. I'll add a little more explanation to the answer. $\endgroup$
    – R Carnell
    Commented Jan 3 at 18:58
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    $\begingroup$ Assumption (2) is blatantly false! When the teams meet each other, they are not playing two independent games: they are playing the same game. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jan 3 at 22:51
  • $\begingroup$ "but A,B and !A,!B are not allowed." Why? Based on which logic or mechanism? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 3 at 23:58
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    $\begingroup$ @Dave the computation is P(A = 1, given XOR(A,B) = 1). But, there is no logic or mechanism why this should be the probability that A wins in a duel between A and B. [I can come up with one mechanism, which is that the teams play flipping a coin untill one team has 1 more heads than the other team, and 0.6 and 0.9 are the probabilities of flipping heads] $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 4 at 8:20

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