For example, to estimate the population mean $\mu$, I am given two sample mean $\bar{x}_1$ and $\bar{x}_2$ from two (independent) data sets of $N_1$ and $N_2$ observations respectively.
Without access to the data sets, I am told that the sample standard deviations are $s_1$ and $s_2$ and asked which sample mean should be chosen.
I would say that the two estimates are not comparable. Is it correct? (my 1st question) My reasoning is as follows. $$s^2 = \frac{1}{N-1}\sum_i (x_i - \bar{x})^2$$ where $\bar{x} = \frac{1}{N}\sum_i x_i$. Expecting the estimator being unbiased means that I am assuming for example $x_i=\mu + e_i$ with $\mathbb{E}[e]=0$.
Injecting the model, $\bar{x} - \mu = \frac{1}{N}\sum_i e_i$ and therefore $s^2 = \frac{1}{N-1}\sum_i (\mu+e_i - \bar{x})^2 = \frac{1}{N-1}\sum_i (e_i + (\mu - \bar{x}))^2$.
I conclude that smaller $s$ does not mean smaller $(\mu-\bar{x})^2$.
A related question (my 1-bis question) is there any way to assess the "correctness" of the two estimates?
My second question would be what should I do to gain a better estimates from the mean and variance of the two data sets?