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Jun 21, 2015 at 17:21 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 21, 2015 at 15:08 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 21, 2015 at 11:41 comment added Loves Probability Thanks a lot for the detailed answer. Just a clarification, the area under your density $f_X(x)$ (second eq) doesn't sum to 1!! --- I think, once it is corrected, it will cancel out the "normalization factor" that you are talking about. Any thoughts?
Jun 21, 2015 at 8:41 history answered Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0