Timeline for What does Jaynes' continuous pdf notation "$g(x)~\mathrm dx$" actually mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Oct 11, 2022 at 21:37 | comment | added | User1865345 | Able to understand your predicament. Thanks for the edit @Xi'an! | |
| Oct 11, 2022 at 19:24 | history | edited | Xi'an | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Oct 11, 2022 at 15:18 | comment | added | User1865345 | That's weird! It was your note. Your presentation. Thanks for the link @Xi'an. I would urge you to please add this link in your answer for the future readers for comments are prone to get deleted. As usual appreciate your contributions. +1. | |
| Oct 11, 2022 at 14:57 | comment | added | Xi'an | @User1865345: Someone complained about this set of slides that quoting Jaynes was a breach of copyright (!) so I had to remove it. Here is another link. | |
| Oct 11, 2022 at 8:21 | comment | added | User1865345 | Update re the linked site: The current link isn't providing the relevant materials. I tried to use the archived one, but couldn't retrieve the slides. | |
| Nov 11, 2011 at 15:18 | comment | added | whuber♦ | +1. The course on Jaynes' theory (to which you link) contains this remarkable quotation, which I think automatically settles the matter of Jaynes' credentials for any mathematician trained after the 19th century: "There are no really trustworthy standards of rigor in a mathematics that embraced the theory of infinite sets." (The course notes address some further mathematical solecisms: pp 8-10.) | |
| Nov 11, 2011 at 7:53 | history | edited | Xi'an | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Nov 11, 2011 at 6:11 | history | answered | Xi'an | CC BY-SA 3.0 |