Timeline for normal approximation to the binomial distribution: why np>5?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Aug 8, 2022 at 3:30 | answer | added | Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen | timeline score: 4 | |
Sep 15, 2019 at 16:31 | vote | accept | jochen | ||
Sep 15, 2019 at 16:28 | answer | added | kbrose | timeline score: 9 | |
S Dec 6, 2016 at 1:48 | history | bounty ended | Clarinetist | ||
S Dec 6, 2016 at 1:48 | history | notice removed | Clarinetist | ||
Nov 30, 2016 at 8:43 | comment | added | Glen_b | I've also seen $np(1-p)>9$ and $np(1-p)>10$. | |
Nov 30, 2016 at 3:55 | comment | added | Hong Ooi | It's a rule of thumb. If it was rigorous, you wouldn't need the thumb. | |
Nov 30, 2016 at 3:19 | answer | added | GeoMatt22 | timeline score: 13 | |
Nov 30, 2016 at 3:11 | answer | added | Ben Bolker | timeline score: 7 | |
S Nov 30, 2016 at 1:22 | history | bounty started | Clarinetist | ||
S Nov 30, 2016 at 1:22 | history | notice added | Clarinetist | Improve details | |
Apr 18, 2016 at 13:30 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackStats/status/722054645229727745 | ||
Apr 16, 2016 at 12:13 | answer | added | Bach | timeline score: 0 | |
Apr 16, 2016 at 11:34 | history | asked | jochen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |