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Dec 5, 2016 at 10:47 vote accept john_w
Nov 25, 2016 at 16:49 comment added john_w Hi Xian, I have attached the link to the file that contains the materials in the edited question above now.
Nov 25, 2016 at 12:42 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 25, 2016 at 12:40 comment added Xi'an With probability 1, a realisation of$X$ from the density q belongs to the support of $q$, $\{x;\,q(x)>0\}$. Hence there is a zero probability to obtain a realisation outside this support and $q(X)>0$ with probability one.
Nov 25, 2016 at 12:32 comment added john_w Oh, Thanks a lot Xi'an. It is so clear I think. Also sorry I just have one more question. The author says that there is no need to worry about sampling from Q when q(x) =0 (i.e. when the denominator could be zero , q(x) = 0), because the author says "we will never see one". I am just wondering why is it true that when sampling from the distribution Q, we will never seen a sample x such that q(x)=0?
Nov 25, 2016 at 9:28 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 25, 2016 at 8:02 history answered Xi'an CC BY-SA 3.0