Timeline for Is using a uniform or non-informative prior for a Bayesian model equivalent in some sense to a Frequentist one?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Feb 17, 2017 at 23:22 | vote | accept | user321627 | ||
| Feb 10, 2017 at 7:08 | comment | added | DeltaIV | As @Neil_G correctly notes, it depends on the model. For example, in the case of the Beta-Binomial model, the prior which leads to the same estimates a frequentist statistician would make, is the Haldane prior (an improper prior), not the uniform one (see here). Actually, a good frequentist statistician would know better than using the Wald confidence interval for a proportion :) | |
| Feb 10, 2017 at 6:55 | answer | added | Xi'an | timeline score: 2 | |
| Feb 9, 2017 at 10:35 | comment | added | beuhbbb | I think that the answers given in stats.stackexchange.com/questions/64259/… and stats.stackexchange.com/questions/180420/… contain everything you need | |
| Feb 9, 2017 at 2:56 | comment | added | Neil G | An uninformative prior is not necessarily uniform. It depends on the model. | |
| Feb 9, 2017 at 1:49 | history | asked | user321627 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |