Timeline for What is the point of non-informative priors?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 13 at 17:32 | comment | added | AdamO | @Macro non-informative priors don't bias estimates? | |
| Feb 17 at 16:52 | answer | added | jdonland | timeline score: 6 | |
| Oct 23, 2015 at 14:16 | history | edited | Xi'an | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 1 character in body; edited tags
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| May 5, 2012 at 12:40 | answer | added | Xi'an | timeline score: 34 | |
| May 5, 2012 at 8:14 | comment | added | Stéphane Laurent | Moreover the uniform distribution is not a non-informative prior. For instance it forces $\theta^2$ to be more probably close to $0$ than $1$. | |
| May 5, 2012 at 2:51 | comment | added | Macro | Well, if you have no basis for specifying a prior, why would you want to bias your estimates by arbitrarily assigning one? | |
| May 5, 2012 at 2:31 | comment | added | jthetzel | A recent related discussion: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/27589/… | |
| May 5, 2012 at 2:11 | history | asked | Robbiee | CC BY-SA 3.0 |