Timeline for Kahn Pseudo Normal distribution
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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May 10, 2017 at 14:06 | comment | added | Glen_b | I nowhere say that $\log(1/x-1)$ is the inverse cdf (it isn't), However, I do say the method corresponds to the inverse cdf method. Note that $\log(1/v-1) = \log((1-v)/v)= -\log(v/(1-v))$, Keep in mind that the standard logistic is symmetric about $0$. Alternatively (but equivalently), note that if $u=1-v$ $\log(1/v-1)=\log(u/(1-u))$, and if $V$ is uniform on $(0,1)$ then so is $U=1-V$. | |
May 10, 2017 at 13:58 | comment | added | plasmacel | In some sources I see $\log(x/(1-x))$ as the inverse CDF of the logistic distribution. This differs from $\log(1/x-1)=-\log(x/(1-x))$ in a sign. Which is the correct one? | |
May 10, 2017 at 12:44 | history | edited | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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May 10, 2017 at 12:36 | vote | accept | plasmacel | ||
May 10, 2017 at 8:46 | history | edited | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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May 10, 2017 at 7:57 | history | edited | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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May 10, 2017 at 5:37 | history | answered | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 3.0 |