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$$\begin{align} f(\beta) &= \lVert y-X\beta \lVert^2 \\ g(\beta) &= \lVert \beta \lVert^2\\ h(\beta) &= \lVert X\beta \lVert^2 \end{align}$$ normal which

which can be viewed, geometrically, as finding the smallest ellipsoid $f(\beta)=RSS$$f(\beta)=\text{RSS }$ that touches the intersection of the sphere $g(\beta) = t$ and the ellipsoid $h(\beta)=1$

##Further notes regarding the limit $\lambda \to \infty$

  • The usual ridge regression limit for $\lambda$ to infinity corresponds to a different point in the constrained ridge regression. This 'old' limit corresponds to the point where $\mu$ is equal to -1. Then the derivative of the Lagrange function in the normalized problem

The usual ridge regression limit for $\lambda$ to infinity corresponds to a different point in the constrained ridge regression. This 'old' limit corresponds to the point where $\mu$ is equal to -1. Then the derivative of the Lagrange function in the normalized problem

$$2 (1+\mu) X^{T}X \beta + 2 X^T y + 2 \lambda \beta$$ corresponds to a solution for the derivative of the Lagrange function in the standard problem

$$2 X^{T}X \beta^\prime + 2 X^T y + 2 \frac{\lambda}{(1+\mu)} \beta^\prime \qquad \text{with $\beta^\prime = (1+\mu)\beta$}$$

  • You could parameterize the 2-d problem as following:

$$\beta(\theta) = \begin{pmatrix} a \cos(\theta) \\ b \sin(\theta) \end{pmatrix} $$

e.g. the regression is with:

$$ X = \begin{pmatrix} 1/a & 0 \\ 0 & 1/b \\ \end{pmatrix}$$

Then the following is to be minimized $$f(\theta) = \left(\cos(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{a}\right)^2 + \left(\sin(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{b}\right)^2 + \lambda \left( a^2 \cos(\theta)^2 + b^2 \sin(\theta)^2 \right) $$ It is a bit more work to simplify those trigonometric functions, but note that the part $$\left( a^2 \cos(\theta)^2 + b^2 \sin(\theta)^2 \right)$$ has slope zero in the points $\theta = \frac{k}{2}\pi$, but the part $$\left(\cos(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{a}\right)^2 + \left(\sin(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{b}\right)^2 $$ does not. So no matter what the value of $\lambda$ the solution does not have a minimum in $\theta = \frac{k}{2}\pi$, although we can get arbitrarily close when $\lambda \to \infty$.

$$\begin{align} f(\beta) &= \lVert y-X\beta \lVert^2 \\ g(\beta) &= \lVert \beta \lVert^2\\ h(\beta) &= \lVert X\beta \lVert^2 \end{align}$$ normal which can be viewed, geometrically, as finding the smallest ellipsoid $f(\beta)=RSS$ that touches the intersection of the sphere $g(\beta) = t$ and the ellipsoid $h(\beta)=1$

##Further notes regarding the limit $\lambda \to \infty$

  • The usual ridge regression limit for $\lambda$ to infinity corresponds to a different point in the constrained ridge regression. This 'old' limit corresponds to the point where $\mu$ is equal to -1. Then the derivative of the Lagrange function in the normalized problem

$$2 (1+\mu) X^{T}X \beta + 2 X^T y + 2 \lambda \beta$$ corresponds to a solution for the derivative of the Lagrange function in the standard problem

$$2 X^{T}X \beta^\prime + 2 X^T y + 2 \frac{\lambda}{(1+\mu)} \beta^\prime \qquad \text{with $\beta^\prime = (1+\mu)\beta$}$$

  • You could parameterize the 2-d problem as following:

$$\beta(\theta) = \begin{pmatrix} a \cos(\theta) \\ b \sin(\theta) \end{pmatrix} $$

e.g. the regression is with:

$$ X = \begin{pmatrix} 1/a & 0 \\ 0 & 1/b \\ \end{pmatrix}$$

Then the following is to be minimized $$f(\theta) = \left(\cos(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{a}\right)^2 + \left(\sin(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{b}\right)^2 + \lambda \left( a^2 \cos(\theta)^2 + b^2 \sin(\theta)^2 \right) $$ It is a bit more work to simplify those trigonometric functions, but note that the part $$\left( a^2 \cos(\theta)^2 + b^2 \sin(\theta)^2 \right)$$ has slope zero in the points $\theta = \frac{k}{2}\pi$, but the part $$\left(\cos(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{a}\right)^2 + \left(\sin(\theta)-\frac{\hat{\beta}_{LS}}{b}\right)^2 $$ does not. So no matter what the value of $\lambda$ the solution does not have a minimum in $\theta = \frac{k}{2}\pi$, although we can get arbitrarily close when $\lambda \to \infty$.

$$\begin{align} f(\beta) &= \lVert y-X\beta \lVert^2 \\ g(\beta) &= \lVert \beta \lVert^2\\ h(\beta) &= \lVert X\beta \lVert^2 \end{align}$$

which can be viewed, geometrically, as finding the smallest ellipsoid $f(\beta)=\text{RSS }$ that touches the intersection of the sphere $g(\beta) = t$ and the ellipsoid $h(\beta)=1$

##Further notes regarding the limit $\lambda \to \infty$

The usual ridge regression limit for $\lambda$ to infinity corresponds to a different point in the constrained ridge regression. This 'old' limit corresponds to the point where $\mu$ is equal to -1. Then the derivative of the Lagrange function in the normalized problem

$$2 (1+\mu) X^{T}X \beta + 2 X^T y + 2 \lambda \beta$$ corresponds to a solution for the derivative of the Lagrange function in the standard problem

$$2 X^{T}X \beta^\prime + 2 X^T y + 2 \frac{\lambda}{(1+\mu)} \beta^\prime \qquad \text{with $\beta^\prime = (1+\mu)\beta$}$$

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