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Why acncan Gibbs sampling outputs be used in Rao-Blackwellization?

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Xi'an
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Why acn Gibbs sampling outputs can be used to doin Rao-Blackwellization calcuation?

I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$$p(\phi^* |y) \approx \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$$

As far as I understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is not covered by the answers.

  Is there anythis a misunderstanding I have forabout Gibbs sampling?

Why Gibbs sampling outputs can be used to do Rao-Blackwellization calcuation?

I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$$p(\phi^* |y) \approx \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$$

As far as I understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is covered by the answers.

  Is there any misunderstanding I have for Gibbs sampling?

Why acn Gibbs sampling outputs be used in Rao-Blackwellization?

I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$$p(\phi^* |y) \approx \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$$

As far as I understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is not covered by the answers. Is this a misunderstanding about Gibbs sampling?

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Xi'an
  • 107.7k
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I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$p(\phi^* |y) = \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$.$$p(\phi^* |y) \approx \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$$

As far as I can understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is covered by the answers.

Is there any misunderstanding I have for Gibbs sampling?

I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$p(\phi^* |y) = \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$.

As far as I can understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is covered by the answers.

Is there any misunderstanding I have for Gibbs sampling?

I'm currently learning Chib (1995)'s method to calculate the marginal likelihood of a Bayesian model using Gibbs sampling outputs. I'm stuck in the Rao-Blackwellization step.

Suppose $\mu$ and $\phi$ are the model parameters, and y is the data. The key step is to calculate $p(\mu,\phi|y)$, which can be written as $p(\mu |\phi,y)*p(\phi |y)$. The first part is the full conditional and known. The second part can be further written as $p(\phi |y)=\int p(\phi | \mu, y)*p(\mu|y) d\mu$. Based on Rao-Blackwell theorem,

$$p(\phi^* |y) \approx \dfrac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} p(\phi^* | \mu^i, y)$$

As far as I understand, this is an average of the full conditional $p(\phi^* | \mu, y)$, over the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$. So, we need to supply a set of realizations of $\mu$ from the posterior marginal distribution of $\mu$, i.e., $p(\mu|y)$.

However, Chib suggests that we can insert the Gibbs sampling outputs of $\mu$ into the summation. But aren't the outputs obtained from Gibbs about the joint posterior $p(\mu,\phi|y)$? Why suddenly can we use the results from joint distribution to replace the marginal distribution?

Some discussions about Gibbs and Rao-Blackwellization are here. But my question is covered by the answers.

Is there any misunderstanding I have for Gibbs sampling?

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Ding Li
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