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Jun 11, 2020 at 14:32 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Apr 19, 2020 at 17:30 vote accept kbg
Apr 19, 2020 at 17:30 vote accept kbg
Apr 19, 2020 at 17:30
Apr 30, 2019 at 8:54 vote accept kbg
Apr 19, 2020 at 17:30
Mar 7, 2019 at 22:10 answer added Tim timeline score: 2
Mar 7, 2019 at 22:00 comment added AdamO variance for a binomial is $np(1-p)$, $n$ independent trials each with variance $p(1-p)$. Sample proportion is the number of successes divided by $n$. rule of thumb $\text{var}(Y/n) = \text{var}(Y)/n^2$, so the sample proportion has variance $p(1-p)/n$
Mar 7, 2019 at 7:46 answer added David timeline score: 2
Mar 7, 2019 at 1:53 answer added juod timeline score: 9
Mar 6, 2019 at 22:25 review First posts
Mar 7, 2019 at 1:39
Mar 6, 2019 at 22:23 history asked kbg CC BY-SA 4.0