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Oct 22, 2020 at 2:21 answer added Dayne timeline score: 0
Oct 22, 2020 at 1:29 comment added Dayne But if you have already included AR(1) term in the model why would errors have AR(1) correlation?
Oct 21, 2020 at 20:46 comment added Aishwarya Deore The assumption is that they are uncorrelated - else I would have an omitted variable bias. Plus I have no reason to believe that the error term would be correlated with any of the independent variables - but since I have a lag of DV now, there would be an AR(1) correlation between the error terms
Oct 21, 2020 at 18:15 comment added Dayne What are your assumptions about $e_t | X$, where $e_t$ is error and $X$ is vector of IVs?
Oct 21, 2020 at 16:16 history edited Aishwarya Deore CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 21, 2020 at 15:27 history asked Aishwarya Deore CC BY-SA 4.0