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Jan 6, 2021 at 14:24 vote accept Tom Bennett
Jan 6, 2021 at 6:42 answer added Xi'an timeline score: 1
Jan 6, 2021 at 6:16 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5, 2021 at 22:57 comment added Tom Bennett djsaunde.github.io/read/books/pdfs/…
Jan 5, 2021 at 14:13 comment added Tom Bennett Ah, that makes a lot of sense.
Jan 5, 2021 at 14:01 comment added Xi'an A normal sample with unknown mean would do: if $\bar{X}(D)=\bar{X}(D^\prime)$, the sum of squares could differ between $D$ and $D^\prime$.
Jan 5, 2021 at 8:04 comment added Tom Bennett To digress a bit, as you pointed out, for two datasets $D$ and $D'$ with the same sufficient static, the likelihoods do not have to be equal. But for all the examples that I can come up with, $D$ and $D'$ have different numbers of data points. Is there an example where the likelihoods are different but $D$ and $D'$ have the same number of data points?
Jan 5, 2021 at 5:36 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5, 2021 at 5:34 history edited Tom Bennett CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5, 2021 at 5:28 history edited Xi'an CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5, 2021 at 3:51 history edited Tom Bennett CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 5, 2021 at 3:29 history asked Tom Bennett CC BY-SA 4.0