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Apr 8, 2022 at 3:53 history closed Xi'an
kjetil b halvorsen
Needs details or clarity
Apr 6, 2022 at 10:29 comment added Firebug @Tim since it's about Bayesian statistics I thought it followed directly from that definition, and not for the general Bayes' Theorem, which is not exclusively Bayesian
Apr 6, 2022 at 9:27 vote accept user366312
Apr 6, 2022 at 9:23 comment added PaulG By "distribution" do you mean densities (PDFs)? If yes, then the question of deriving Bayes' formula for densities from probabilities is indeed not trivial (see Papoulis 2002. Probabilities Random Variables and Stochastic Processes. Chp4-4). But if you mean CDFs then Bayes' theorem for CDFs follows immediately from Bayes' theorem for probabilities since CDFs are probabilities (i.e. needs only replacing the event with the random variable e.g. $P(A)$ with $P(X\le x)$).
Apr 6, 2022 at 9:21 review Close votes
Apr 8, 2022 at 3:53
Apr 6, 2022 at 8:32 answer added BruceET timeline score: 0
Apr 6, 2022 at 8:26 comment added Tim @Firebug you can write down Bayes theorem for events so your comment may be unclear without further clarification.
Apr 6, 2022 at 8:24 answer added Tim timeline score: 2
Apr 6, 2022 at 6:42 comment added Firebug I think you have it switched: when we say priors, we mean prior probability distributions. Priors are always defined as distributions.
Apr 6, 2022 at 6:34 history asked user366312 CC BY-SA 4.0