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May 19, 2013 at 20:55 vote accept Tim
May 18, 2013 at 1:44 comment added Peter Ellis If you take the definition of the Pearson correlation and manipulate it so it refers to counts rather than to sums of the differences between individual observations and the means, you get the Matthews formula. I haven't actually done this, but it must be reasonably straightforward.
May 18, 2013 at 1:36 comment added Tim Thanks, Peter! Mathematically, why are phi and Mathew equivalent to Pearson for two binary random variables?
May 18, 2013 at 1:20 history answered Peter Ellis CC BY-SA 3.0