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Sep 9, 2023 at 14:23 vote accept Fiodor1234
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:47 comment added Xi'an And if instead by $p$ you mean the unnormalised version, the average converges to the integral of $p^2$ over the integral of $p$.
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:36 comment added Fiodor1234 Yes my notation wasn't good, I understand what you mean now.
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:33 comment added Xi'an As written it involves $p(\cdots)$ but $p$ is missing its normalising constant.
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:28 comment added Fiodor1234 @Xi'an Why the summation is not possible? This would be the normalising constant for resampling as jbowman said. If I'm not mistaken
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:22 answer added Xi'an timeline score: 2
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:14 comment added Xi'an The summation$$\sum_{j=1}^{M}p(\mu_{1,j}, \mu_{2,j},..., \mu_{K^{j},j},K^{k})$$is not possible since $p$ is only known up to a normalising constant.
Sep 9, 2023 at 12:13 comment added Xi'an Is there a missing indicator in the exponent of $a$ ? The notation $\sum_{ij}|\mu_{i}-\mu_{j}|<d$ is ambiguous.
Sep 8, 2023 at 18:36 comment added jbowman The normalizing constant you are calculating isn't the normalizing constant of the Strauss process, which is indeed intractable, but simply the normalizing constant for resampling from your sample.
Sep 8, 2023 at 18:17 history edited User1865345 CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 18 characters in body
Sep 8, 2023 at 16:54 history asked Fiodor1234 CC BY-SA 4.0