Suppose $$C_n=X_1 X_2\cdots X_n$$$$C_n=X_1 X_2\cdots X_n,$$ where $X_i$ is $d\times d$ matrix with IID entries normally distributed with mean 0 and variance $\frac{1}{d}$,.
The following appears to be true for large $d$, why?
$$\|C_n C_n^T\|_F^2\approx d(n+1)$$$$\|C_n C_n^T\|_F^2\approx d(n+1).$$
Here are some numbers from a 4 samples with $d=1000$
$$\left( \begin{array}{cccccc} & \text{n} & \text{sample1} & \text{sample2} & \text{sample3} & \text{sample4} \\ & 1 & 2003.99 & 1998.66 & 1999.51 & 1998.14 \\ & 2 & 3029.97 & 2990.12 & 3008.21 & 2999.13 \\ & 3 & 3967.81 & 3995.46 & 4022.33 & 4005.2 \\ & 4 & 5027.41 & 5075.39 & 4941.94 & 5057.4 \\ & 5 & 6143.21 & 5964.35 & 5844.76 & 6015.08 \\ \end{array} \right)$$
(Notebook):
n sample1 sample2 sample3 sample4
----------------------------------------
1 2003.99 1998.66 1999.51 1998.14
2 3029.97 2990.12 3008.21 2999.13
3 3967.81 3995.46 4022.33 4005.20
4 5027.41 5075.39 4941.94 5057.40
5 6143.21 5964.35 5844.76 6015.08