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yesterday comment added Roger V. Literature on bayesian feature selection might contain some recipes - since they are concerned with inherently discrete parameters, like the number of features in a model.
2 days ago answer added Sextus Empiricus timeline score: 1
2 days ago comment added Sextus Empiricus @Glen_b but a prior is independent from the observation. I can see how the likelihood has the shape of a negative binomial distribution for a single observation, but for multiple observations I am not sure what it is and it deviates from a negative binomial (maybe the negative binomial isn't conjugate after all).
2 days ago comment added Glen_b If it is observed, you do know what it was. Or you can come at it from the relationship between the binomial and the negative binomial
2 days ago comment added Sextus Empiricus @Glen_b That might indeed be a conjugate prior. But the count of successes is not known, it is observed. So if we use the negative binomial as prior, then what count of successes to use?
Dec 14 at 2:08 comment added Glen_b Number of trials to get a known count of successes (the observed data) would be negative binomial.
Dec 13 at 16:38 comment added Sextus Empiricus Possibly another approach could be to have a multistage model with a continuous parameter that models a discrete distribution from which the parameter $n$ is obtained, and we let the variance of that distribution approach zero. Should different of such multistage models lead to the same result (same prior).
Dec 13 at 16:33 comment added kjetil b halvorsen Relevant: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/500781/…, stats.stackexchange.com/questions/275600/…, stats.stackexchange.com/questions/113851/…, stats.stackexchange.com/questions/588863/…, stats.stackexchange.com/questions/502124/… and search for more ...
Dec 13 at 16:22 comment added Sextus Empiricus The binomial distribution has a relationship between variance and expectation like $Var[X] = (1-p) E[X]$. Are there known distributions that match that? Or otherwise we could maybe model it as a normal distribution $X \sim N(np,np(1-p))$ and for that case a Jeffreys prior should exist and might be computed.
Dec 13 at 16:16 comment added Sextus Empiricus Possibly we could try some continuous analogue of a binomial distribution? That might lead to different options, but I am sure there are some more simple/desired cases among them.
Dec 13 at 16:07 history asked Sextus Empiricus CC BY-SA 4.0