Here is the setup:
Bob runs an experiment: he flips a coin N times (between 0 and +$\infty$). The coin has a probability p of landing on heads. Bob starts with zero points. For each head, Bob scores a point.
Now, Bob goes to Alice and tells her p and that the score is zero, and ask her the probability that he flipped the coin N=n times.
The case that make it special for me is the addition of the possibility of zero draws, and I'm stuck with it. Here is my attempt at solving this:
N is the random variable counting the number of flips, S is the random variable counting the score.
We want to know $P(N=n|S=0)$.
$$ P(N=n|S=0) = \frac{P(S=0|N=n) \cdot P(N=n)}{P(S=0)} $$
Now $P(S=0|N=n)= (1-p)^{n}$ so that's good.
Also, $P(S=0) = P(N=0) + \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty (1-p)^{n}P(N=n) $
But now I'm stuck since I don't know what do with that $P(N=n)$. Now you could argue that since we know nothing about the distribution of N, the most reasonable assumption is that they are all equally likely.
Then the substitution occurs as: $$ P(N=n|S=0) = \frac{P(S=0|N=n) \cdot P(N)}{\frac{1}{p}\cdot P(N)} = p(1-p)^{n} $$
This feels like cheating. Not because of the limit, this looks legit cf replace $\infty$ with $N_{max}$ and take the limit at the end, but because of the assumption on $P(N)$ being uniform. While keeping $N_{max}$ this is good, but it seems shady when taking the limit. Also, what do I know if it is uniform ?
Am I doing something wrong here ?