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The original version of this answer was missing the point (that's when the answer got a couple of downvotes). The answer was fixed in October 2015.

This is a somewhat controversial topic.

It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is so because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance. See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the N$N$ "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). The accepted and the most upvoted answers in Bias and variance in leave-one-out vs K-fold cross validation give the same reasoning.

However,HOWEVER, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations, and while this reasoning does sound plausible, I would like to see some direct evidence that this is indeed the case. One reference that is sometimes cited is Kohavi 1995 but I don't find it very convincing in this particular claim.

This question seems to be very amenable toMOREOVER, here are two simulations. Here is one simulation that does show high variance of LOOCV: https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/357572.

But here is one simulation that shows low (!) variance of LOOCV: Variance of $K$-fold cross-validation estimates as $f(K)$: what is the role of "stability"?. See also either has the paper linked in https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/252031.same or even a bit lower variance than 10-fold CV:

So it seems that there is disagreement about whether LOOCV does indeed have high variance; let alone about why.

The original version of this answer was missing the point (that's when the answer got a couple of downvotes). The answer was fixed in October 2015.

This is a somewhat controversial topic.

It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is so because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance. See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the N "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). The accepted and the most upvoted answers in Bias and variance in leave-one-out vs K-fold cross validation give the same reasoning.

However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations, and while this reasoning does sound plausible, I would like to see some direct evidence that this is indeed the case. One reference that is sometimes cited is Kohavi 1995 but I don't find it very convincing in this particular claim.

This question seems to be very amenable to simulations. Here is one simulation that does show high variance of LOOCV: https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/357572.

But here is one simulation that shows low (!) variance of LOOCV: Variance of $K$-fold cross-validation estimates as $f(K)$: what is the role of "stability"?. See also the paper linked in https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/252031.

So it seems that there is disagreement about whether LOOCV does indeed have high variance; let alone about why.

The original version of this answer was missing the point (that's when the answer got a couple of downvotes). The answer was fixed in October 2015.

This is a somewhat controversial topic.

It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is so because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance. See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the $N$ "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). The accepted and the most upvoted answers in Bias and variance in leave-one-out vs K-fold cross validation give the same reasoning.

HOWEVER, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations, and while this reasoning does sound plausible, I would like to see some direct evidence that this is indeed the case. One reference that is sometimes cited is Kohavi 1995 but I don't find it very convincing in this particular claim.

MOREOVER, here are two simulations that show that LOOCV either has the same or even a bit lower variance than 10-fold CV:

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amoeba
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Oct 2015. MyThe original version of this answer here was irrelevant, as pointed out inmissing the comments below and inpoint (that's when the answer got a couple of downvotes). I replace it with a new answer now (but save my originalThe answer below)was fixed in October 2015.

This is a complicatedsomewhat controversial topic, and I must admit that I don't have a full understanding of it. 

It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is so because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance.

  See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). The accepted and the most upvoted answers in Bias and variance in leave-one-out vs K-fold cross validation give the same reasoning.

However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations here, and while this reasoning soundsdoes sound plausible, I would like to see some more convincingdirect evidence that this is indeed the case.

This topic has previously been discussed on CrossValidated, and in fact I believe One reference that this question is an exact duplicate of this one:

See also


Original answer

The answer below was irrelevant, because it discusses the variance over folds and not the overall variance over datasets.

Consider a dataset of size $N$ and probability of misclassificationsometimes cited is $p$. Let's compare LOOCV and 10-fold CV. For simplicity let's assume that they both correctly estimate the error rateKohavi 1995 but I don't find it very convincing in this particular claim.

If we do LOOCV, then each of the $N$ samples willThis question seems to be misclassified with probability $p$very amenable to simulations. So the number of misclassifications in each test set (each consisting of 1 element)Here is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p$ andone simulation that does show high variance [over folds] $p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassificationsLOOCV: https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/357572.

If we do 10-fold CV, then in each test set the number of misclassificationsBut here is a binomial random variable with meanone simulation that shows low $\frac{N}{10}p$ and(!) variance $\frac{N}{10}p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications divided by the size of the test set, i.e. byLOOCV: $\frac{N}{10}$Variance of $K$-fold cross-validation estimates as $f(K)$: what is the role of "stability"?. SoSee also the error rate will have mean $p$ and variance [over folds]paper linked in $\frac{10}{N}p(1-p)$https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/252031.

We see that mean error rate in both cases is $p$, but variance [over folds] is $\frac{N}{10}$ times smaller in cases of 10-fold CV. If for example $N=100$, then it's a 10-fold decrease. The intuition here isSo it seems that in LOOCV on each fold there is only one test sample and so you can only estimate error rate as either $0$ or $1$. This is a very noisy estimate ofdisagreement about $p$ and it will thereforewhether LOOCV does indeed have high variance [over folds]variance; let alone about why.

Oct 2015. My original answer here was irrelevant, as pointed out in the comments below and in a couple of downvotes. I replace it with a new answer now (but save my original answer below).

This is a complicated topic, and I must admit that I don't have a full understanding of it. It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance.

  See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations here, and while this reasoning sounds plausible, I would like to see some more convincing evidence that this is the case.

This topic has previously been discussed on CrossValidated, and in fact I believe that this question is an exact duplicate of this one:

See also


Original answer

The answer below was irrelevant, because it discusses the variance over folds and not the overall variance over datasets.

Consider a dataset of size $N$ and probability of misclassification $p$. Let's compare LOOCV and 10-fold CV. For simplicity let's assume that they both correctly estimate the error rate.

If we do LOOCV, then each of the $N$ samples will be misclassified with probability $p$. So the number of misclassifications in each test set (each consisting of 1 element) is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications.

If we do 10-fold CV, then in each test set the number of misclassifications is a binomial random variable with mean $\frac{N}{10}p$ and variance $\frac{N}{10}p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications divided by the size of the test set, i.e. by $\frac{N}{10}$. So the error rate will have mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $\frac{10}{N}p(1-p)$.

We see that mean error rate in both cases is $p$, but variance [over folds] is $\frac{N}{10}$ times smaller in cases of 10-fold CV. If for example $N=100$, then it's a 10-fold decrease. The intuition here is that in LOOCV on each fold there is only one test sample and so you can only estimate error rate as either $0$ or $1$. This is a very noisy estimate of $p$ and it will therefore have high variance [over folds].

The original version of this answer was missing the point (that's when the answer got a couple of downvotes). The answer was fixed in October 2015.

This is a somewhat controversial topic. 

It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is so because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance. See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). The accepted and the most upvoted answers in Bias and variance in leave-one-out vs K-fold cross validation give the same reasoning.

However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations, and while this reasoning does sound plausible, I would like to see some direct evidence that this is indeed the case. One reference that is sometimes cited is Kohavi 1995 but I don't find it very convincing in this particular claim.

This question seems to be very amenable to simulations. Here is one simulation that does show high variance of LOOCV: https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/357572.

But here is one simulation that shows low (!) variance of LOOCV: Variance of $K$-fold cross-validation estimates as $f(K)$: what is the role of "stability"?. See also the paper linked in https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/252031.

So it seems that there is disagreement about whether LOOCV does indeed have high variance; let alone about why.

replaced http://stats.stackexchange.com/ with https://stats.stackexchange.com/
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Oct 2015. My original answer here was irrelevant, as pointed out in the comments below and in a couple of downvotes. I replace it with a new answer now (but save my original answer below).

This is a complicated topic, and I must admit that I don't have a full understanding of it. It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance.

See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the N "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations here, and while this reasoning sounds plausible, I would like to see some more convincing evidence that this is the case.

This topic has previously been discussed on CrossValidated, and in fact I believe that this question is an exact duplicate of this one:

See also


Original answer

The answer below was irrelevant, because it discusses the variance over folds and not the overall variance over datasets.

Consider a dataset of size $N$ and probability of misclassification $p$. Let's compare LOOCV and 10-fold CV. For simplicity let's assume that they both correctly estimate the error rate.

If we do LOOCV, then each of the $N$ samples will be misclassified with probability $p$. So the number of misclassifications in each test set (each consisting of 1 element) is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications.

If we do 10-fold CV, then in each test set the number of misclassifications is a binomial random variable with mean $\frac{N}{10}p$ and variance $\frac{N}{10}p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications divided by the size of the test set, i.e. by $\frac{N}{10}$. So the error rate will have mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $\frac{10}{N}p(1-p)$.

We see that mean error rate in both cases is $p$, but variance [over folds] is $\frac{N}{10}$ times smaller in cases of 10-fold CV. If for example $N=100$, then it's a 10-fold decrease. The intuition here is that in LOOCV on each fold there is only one test sample and so you can only estimate error rate as either $0$ or $1$. This is a very noisy estimate of $p$ and it will therefore have high variance [over folds].

Oct 2015. My original answer here was irrelevant, as pointed out in the comments below and in a couple of downvotes. I replace it with a new answer now (but save my original answer below).

This is a complicated topic, and I must admit that I don't have a full understanding of it. It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance.

See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the N "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations here, and while this reasoning sounds plausible, I would like to see some more convincing evidence that this is the case.

This topic has previously been discussed on CrossValidated, and in fact I believe that this question is an exact duplicate of this one:

See also


Original answer

The answer below was irrelevant, because it discusses the variance over folds and not the overall variance over datasets.

Consider a dataset of size $N$ and probability of misclassification $p$. Let's compare LOOCV and 10-fold CV. For simplicity let's assume that they both correctly estimate the error rate.

If we do LOOCV, then each of the $N$ samples will be misclassified with probability $p$. So the number of misclassifications in each test set (each consisting of 1 element) is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications.

If we do 10-fold CV, then in each test set the number of misclassifications is a binomial random variable with mean $\frac{N}{10}p$ and variance $\frac{N}{10}p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications divided by the size of the test set, i.e. by $\frac{N}{10}$. So the error rate will have mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $\frac{10}{N}p(1-p)$.

We see that mean error rate in both cases is $p$, but variance [over folds] is $\frac{N}{10}$ times smaller in cases of 10-fold CV. If for example $N=100$, then it's a 10-fold decrease. The intuition here is that in LOOCV on each fold there is only one test sample and so you can only estimate error rate as either $0$ or $1$. This is a very noisy estimate of $p$ and it will therefore have high variance [over folds].

Oct 2015. My original answer here was irrelevant, as pointed out in the comments below and in a couple of downvotes. I replace it with a new answer now (but save my original answer below).

This is a complicated topic, and I must admit that I don't have a full understanding of it. It is often claimed that LOOCV has higher variance than $k$-fold CV, and that it is because the training sets in LOOCV have more overlap. This makes the estimates from different folds more dependent than in the $k$-fold CV, the reasoning goes, and hence increases the overall variance.

See for example a quote from The Elements of Statistical Learning by Hastie et al. (Section 7.10.1):

What value should we choose for $K$? With $K = N$, the cross-validation estimator is approximately unbiased for the true (expected) prediction error, but can have high variance because the N "training sets" are so similar to one another.

See also a similar quote in the answer by @BrashEquilibrium (+1). However, note that Hastie et al. do not give any citations here, and while this reasoning sounds plausible, I would like to see some more convincing evidence that this is the case.

This topic has previously been discussed on CrossValidated, and in fact I believe that this question is an exact duplicate of this one:

See also


Original answer

The answer below was irrelevant, because it discusses the variance over folds and not the overall variance over datasets.

Consider a dataset of size $N$ and probability of misclassification $p$. Let's compare LOOCV and 10-fold CV. For simplicity let's assume that they both correctly estimate the error rate.

If we do LOOCV, then each of the $N$ samples will be misclassified with probability $p$. So the number of misclassifications in each test set (each consisting of 1 element) is a Bernoulli random variable with mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications.

If we do 10-fold CV, then in each test set the number of misclassifications is a binomial random variable with mean $\frac{N}{10}p$ and variance $\frac{N}{10}p(1-p)$. The error rate is equal to the number of misclassifications divided by the size of the test set, i.e. by $\frac{N}{10}$. So the error rate will have mean $p$ and variance [over folds] $\frac{10}{N}p(1-p)$.

We see that mean error rate in both cases is $p$, but variance [over folds] is $\frac{N}{10}$ times smaller in cases of 10-fold CV. If for example $N=100$, then it's a 10-fold decrease. The intuition here is that in LOOCV on each fold there is only one test sample and so you can only estimate error rate as either $0$ or $1$. This is a very noisy estimate of $p$ and it will therefore have high variance [over folds].

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