Timeline for Why doesn't correlation of residuals matter when testing for normality?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 4, 2015 at 8:59 | answer | added | Marco Breitig | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 3, 2014 at 21:21 | history | edited | Zoran Loncarevic | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 3, 2014 at 21:14 | history | edited | Zoran Loncarevic | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 2, 2014 at 23:55 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/462379909000998912 | ||
| May 2, 2014 at 20:12 | comment | added | Zoran Loncarevic | @whuber I am asking about correlation arising from the least squares estimation procedure. If they are slight and inconsequential, I would like to know why. | |
| May 2, 2014 at 20:04 | history | edited | Zoran Loncarevic | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 2, 2014 at 19:58 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Are you asking about the applicability of these tests when residuals have strong correlations or are you just concerned about the (very slight and inconsequential) negative correlation arising from the least squares estimation procedure? | |
| May 2, 2014 at 19:37 | comment | added | Scortchi♦ | Makes them homoscedastic. | |
| May 2, 2014 at 19:20 | history | edited | Nick Stauner | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| May 2, 2014 at 19:15 | review | First posts | |||
| May 2, 2014 at 19:20 | |||||
| May 2, 2014 at 18:56 | history | asked | Zoran Loncarevic | CC BY-SA 3.0 |