Spin-off from my previous question: Prove/Disprove $E[1_A | \mathscr{F_t}] = 0 ~\text{or} ~ 1 \ \Rightarrow E[1_A | \mathscr{F_{s}}] = E[1_A | \mathscr{F_t}]$
Apparently the conclusion holds true almost surely. Is it really only almost surely? What is an example of a filtered probability space and event $A$ s.t.
$\exists t \in \mathbb N$ s.t. $P(P(A|\mathscr F_t) = 0) = 1$ or $P(P(A|\mathscr F_t) = 1) = 1$
but
$\exists \omega \in \Omega$ s.t. $P(A|\mathscr F_t)(\omega) \ne P(A|\mathscr F_s)(\omega)$ for some $s > t$?