I think the simplest possible non-closed-form expression is the following:
Denote $d$ the common degrees of freedom, $F_X(x;d,d)$ the CDF of the F-distribution with common degrees of freedom, and $I$ the regularized beta function.
Then for given $\tilde x$ we have (exploiting some simplifications due to the common degrees of freedom)
$$F_X(\tilde x;d,d) = I_{\frac {\tilde x}{1+\tilde x}}\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right)=\frac {B\left(\frac {\tilde x}{1+\tilde x};\frac d2,\frac d2\right)}{B\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right)} = q_1$$
where $B(\cdot \;;\cdot,\cdot)$ is the incomplete beta function and $B(\cdot,\cdot)$ the Beta function.
By the properties of the regularized Beta function we have
$$I_{\frac {\tilde x}{1+\tilde x}}\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right) = 1- I_{\frac {1}{1+\tilde x}}\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right) \Rightarrow I_{\frac {1}{1+\tilde x}}\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right) = 1-q_1 = \frac {B\left(\frac {1}{1+\tilde x};\frac d2,\frac d2\right)}{B\left(\frac d2,\frac d2\right)}$$
Using these two results we have
$$\frac {B\left(\frac {\tilde x}{1+\tilde x};\frac d2,\frac d2\right)}{q_1} = \frac {B\left(\frac {1}{1+\tilde x};\frac d2,\frac d2\right)}{1-q_1}$$
$$\Rightarrow (1-q_1)\int_0^{\frac {\tilde x}{1+\tilde x}}(t-t^2)^{d/2 -1}dt - q_1\int_0^{\frac {1}{1+\tilde x}}(t-t^2)^{d/2 -1}dt = 0$$
...which looks a bit less nightmarish than the picture @whuber's comment describes.