I have read some blogs/articles saying that intercept should not be suppressed. Recently, I used glmm.admb to model a ZIP (Zero-inflated Poisson) model which is giving better results without an intercept rather than with an intercept. I was surprised to find that the model without an intercept predicts better than that with an intercept. Is the prediction accuracy one of the reasons that I should use zero-intercept models?
Zero-intercept in my case means fixed effects have zero intercept while it is having a random intercept. Does this really make sense to include intercept in random effects but not in fixed effects?
Kindly assist me in regard to this.