What is the correct interpretation for an OLS regression coefficient $b$ if I substract the independent variable $X$ from $Y$ as in:
$$(Y-X)= a + bX + e$$
($Y$ and $X$ follow a normal distribution)?
The full story is the following:
$X$ and $Y$ are two performance measures (e.g., the performance of a firm). The relation between the two measures is $Y$ = $X$ + $DIFF$. All three values are observable.
$X$ contains an unobservable bias $B$ (e.g., the firm wants to show a good performance and exaggerates $X$ using a positive $B$). $Y$ does not contain a bias (however, there still are some unobservable "natural" differences between $Y$ and unbiased $X$, so $DIFF$ is not $B$).
I want to use the observable variables $Y$, $X$, and $DIFF$ to figure out how much of the bias $B$ in $X$ is undone in $Y$ (and, thus, ends up in $DIFF$). In other words, $Y$ = ($X0$ + $B$) + ($DIFF0$ - $B$), where $X0$ and $DIFF0$ are the unobservable “true” values of $X$ and $DIFF$.
In the following OLS regression $$ DIFF = a + bX + e, $$ if the coefficient $b$ moves toward 0, I would interpret that as less bias being excluded from $Y$ (and $b$ should be -1 if the whole bias is excluded from $Y$)
However, I am not sure if my regression approach/interpretation is right here. Therefore, any help is very much appreciated (I am also happy about literature suggestions).