So I am struggling with the following question. It asks to show that the MSE($\hat{p}_1$)=$\frac{4-16p+16p^2+np-np^2}{(n+4)^2}$ Where $\hat{p}_1$= $\frac{X+2}{n+4}$, $E(X)=np$ and $Var(X)=np(1-p)$ i.e. Binomial Distribution
I am aware of the formula for calculating the MSE, but I don't understand what $E($$\hat{p}_1$) and $Var($$\hat{p}_1$) is going to equal. Or am I totally looking at this the wrong way?