To my (very modest) understand of variational inference, one tries to approximate an unknown distribution $p$ by finding a distribution $q$ that optimises the following:
$$KL (p||q) = \sum\limits_{x} p(x)log \frac {p(x)}{q(x)}$$
Whenever I invest time into understanding variational inference I keep hitting this formula and can't help but feel like I'm missing the point. It seems like I need to know $p$ in order to calculate $KL(p||q)$. But the whole point was I did not know this distribution $p$.
It's this exact point that's been bugging me every time I try to read up something variational. What am I missing?
EDIT:
I'll add a few extra comments here as a result of the answer of @wij, I'll attempt to be more precise.
In the cases that I am interested in, it indeed seems perfectly reasonable to consider that the following holds;
$$p(\theta | D) = \frac{p(D|\theta)p(\theta)}{p(D)} \propto p(D|\theta)p(\theta)$$
In this case I could know what $p$ should proportionally look like because I will have made a model choice for $p(D|\theta)$ and $p(\theta)$. Would I then be correct in saying that I then need to pick a family distribution $q$ [lets say gaussian] such that now I can estimate $KL(p(\theta|D) || q)$. It feels like in this case I am trying to fit a gaussian that is close to the non-normalized $p(D|\theta)p(\theta)$. Is this correct?
If so, it feels like I am assuming that my posterior is a normal distribution and I merely try to find likely values for this distribution with regards to the $KL$ divergence.