I came across the multivariate Bernoulli distribution of Dai, Ding & Wahba (2013) that has the following form (in the bivariate case): $P(X_1,X_2)=p_{11}^{x_1 x_2} p_{10}^{x_1 (1-x_2)} p_{01}^{(1-x_1) x_2} p_{00}^{(1-x_1) (1-x_2)}$
This distribution is a multinomial distribution for $n=1$ with the powers expressed as the values on $x_1$ and $x_2$. Given that we need both $x_1$ and $x_2$ to compute the probability mass, we can express these power coefficients immediately as $x_{11}$, $x_{10}$, $x_{01}$ and $x_{00}$.
Then why would we use such a multivariate Bernoulli distribution rather than the multinomial distribution? Is there any theoretical or practical value?