Let $X\sim\text{Rayleigh}(\theta^{2})$. Prove that $T_{n}$ is consistent, given that $$T_{n}(\textbf{X}) = \frac{1}{2n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x^{2}_{i}$$
MY ATTEMPT
To begin with, let us notice that \begin{align*} p(x|\theta) = \frac{x}{\theta^{2}}\exp\left\{-\frac{x^{2}}{2\theta^{2}}\right\} \end{align*}
which can be rewritten as in the canonical form as \begin{align*} p(x,\eta) = x\exp\left\{\eta x^{2} + \ln(-2\eta)\right\} \end{align*}
where $\eta = -1/2\theta^{2}$. Consequently, $A(\eta) = -\ln(-2\eta)$, from which we obtain that \begin{align*} \textbf{E}(X^{2}) = A^{\prime}(\eta) = -\frac{1}{\eta} = 2\theta^{2}\quad\text{and}\quad \textbf{Var}(X^{2}) = A^{\prime\prime}(\eta) = \frac{1}{\eta^{2}} = 4\theta^{4} \end{align*}
Based on this, we may assert that \begin{align*} \textbf{E}(T_{n}(\textbf{X})) = \frac{1}{2n}\textbf{E}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}x^{2}_{i}\right) = \frac{1}{2n}\times 2n\theta^{2} = \theta^{2} \end{align*}
Analogously, we have \begin{align*} \textbf{Var}(T_{n}(\textbf{X})) = \frac{1}{4n^{2}}\textbf{Var}\left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}x^{2}_{i}\right) = \frac{1}{4n^{2}}\times 4n\theta^{4} = \frac{\theta^{4}}{n}\xrightarrow{n\rightarrow\infty} 0 \end{align*}
from whence we conclude that $T_{n}$ is consistent, as previously stated.
My question is: is there another approach to this problem?