The title sums up my question, but for clarity consider the following simple example. Let $X_i \overset{iid}{\backsim} \mathcal{N}(0, 1)$, $i = 1, ..., n$. Define: \begin{equation} S_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n X_i \end{equation} and \begin{equation} T_n = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i^2 - 1) \end{equation} My question: Even though $S_n$ and $T_n$ are perfectly dependent when $n = 1$, do $\sqrt{n} S_n$ and $\sqrt{n} T_n$ converge to a joint normal distribution as $n \rightarrow \infty$?
The motivation: My motivation for the question stems from the fact that it feels odd (but wonderful) that $S_n$ and $T_n$ are perfectly dependent when $n = 1$, yet the implication of the multivariate CLT is that they approach independence as $n \rightarrow \infty$ (this would follow since $S_n$ and $T_n$ are uncorrelated for all $n$, hence if they are asymptotically joint normal, then they must also be asymptotically independent).
Thanks in advance for any answers or comments!
ps, If you can provide any references etc then all the better!