Why
pgeom(20,0.01,lower.tail = FALSE)1-sum(dgeom(1:20,0.01))
produce different results in R? The result should be the same (at least in theory), right?
Output:
[1] 0.8097279
[1] 0.8197279
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1 Answer
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2
I think you just forgot to account for 0. We can have zero of failures in a sequence of Bernoulli trials before a success occurs.
> (1-sum(dgeom(0:20,0.01))) == pgeom(20,0.01,lower.tail = FALSE)
# [1] TRUE
answered Feb 29, 2020 at 23:56
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1$\begingroup$ Glad I could help! And welcome to the CV community. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 1, 2020 at 0:09