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Problem Statement: Let $Y_1$ and $Y_2$ be jointly distributed random variables with finite variances. Let $\rho$ denote the correlation coefficient of $Y_1$ and $Y_2.$ Using the inequality $$[E(Y_1Y_2)]^2\le E\!\left(Y_1^2\right) E\!\left(Y_2^2\right),$$ show that $\rho^2\le 1.$

This is essentially Exercise 5.111b in Mathematical Statistics with Applications, 5th Ed., by Wackerly, Mendenhall, and Scheaffer.

My Work So Far: We have that $\newcommand{\Cov}{\operatorname{Cov}}$ \begin{align*} \rho^2 &=\frac{(\Cov(Y_1,Y_2))^2}{V(Y_1)V(Y_2)}\\ &=\frac{(E(Y_1Y_2)-E(Y_1)E(Y_2))^2} {\left(E\left(Y_1^2\right)-(E(Y_1))^2\right)\left(E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)-(E(Y_2))^2\right)}\\ &=\frac{(E(Y_1Y_2))^2-2E(Y_1Y_2)E(Y_1)E(Y_2)+(E(Y_1))^2(E(Y_2))^2} {E\!\left(Y_1^2\right)E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)-E\!\left(Y_1^2\right)(E(Y_2))^2-(E(Y_1))^2E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)+(E(Y_1))^2(E(Y_2))^2}\\ &\le\frac{E\!\left(Y_1^2\right)E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)-2E(Y_1Y_2)E(Y_1)E(Y_2)+(E(Y_1))^2(E(Y_2))^2} {E\!\left(Y_1^2\right)E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)-E\!\left(Y_1^2\right)(E(Y_2))^2-(E(Y_1))^2E\!\left(Y_2^2\right)+(E(Y_1))^2(E(Y_2))^2}. \end{align*} Now I can see that there are two terms common to the numerator and denominator, but I'm very unsure of where to go next.

My Question: What are good next steps? Or is this even the right trail to follow?

Many thanks for your time!

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    $\begingroup$ If instead you were to start over by applying the inequality to the two variables $Y_1-E[Y_1]$ and $Y_2-E[Y_2],$ you could complete this exercise in a single short line of work: divide by the right hand side and notice that the definition of $\rho$ appears on the left hand side. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Aug 13, 2020 at 21:40
  • $\begingroup$ Excellent, thanks! $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 14, 2020 at 17:51

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That inequality is an application of the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality:

$$|\langle \mathbf{u},\mathbf{v}\rangle| ^2 \leq \langle \mathbf{u},\mathbf{u}\rangle \cdot \langle \mathbf{v},\mathbf{v}\rangle,$$ where $\langle\cdot,\cdot\rangle$ is the inner product.

For random variables $Y_1$ and $Y_2$, the expected value of their product is an inner product:

$$\langle \mathbf{Y_1},\mathbf{Y_2}\rangle:=E[Y_1Y_2]$$

Therefore

$$\begin{aligned}Cov(Y_1,Y_2)^2 &= E[(Y_1 - E[Y_1])(Y_2 - E[Y_2])]^2\\ &=\langle Y_1 - E[Y_1], Y_2 - E[Y_2] \rangle ^2\\ &\leq \langle Y_1 - E[Y_1], Y_1 - E[Y_1] \rangle \langle Y_2 - E[Y_2], Y_2 - E[Y_2] \rangle\\ &= E[(Y_1-E[Y_1])^2] E[(Y_2-E[Y_2])^2]\\ &= Var(Y_1) Var(Y_2) \end{aligned}$$

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  • $\begingroup$ This works, too, although it's not technically using the inequality directly. Perhaps indirectly? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 14, 2020 at 17:51
  • $\begingroup$ It looks to me, Adrian, like it is using the inequality directly--it merely has been written in a different notation. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Aug 14, 2020 at 18:25

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