Suppose $f$ and $g$ are two probability density functions. I have seen economists use $\int f(x)g(x) dx$ as some kind of similarity measure. For example, Jaffe (1986) uses sum of product of two proportions of budget in each area as a measure of similarity of two firms. https://www.nber.org/system/files/working_papers/w1815/w1815.pdf.
Specifically, $F_{i}\in\mathbb{R}^d$ is defined as the proportion of budget that firm $i$ devotes to in $d$ areas so $\sum_j F_{ij}=1$ and $0 \leq F_{ij} \leq 1$ for all $j = 1, 2, \ldots, d$. The similarity measure between $F_i$ and $F_j$ is defined as $P_{ij} = \frac{F_i^\top F_j}{\|F_i\|_2\|F_j\|_2}$.
If we think of $F_i$ as the probability mass function of a multinomial distribution or more generally the probability density function of a distribution, what is $P_{ij}$ measuring? It has the form of (uncentered) correlation of two p.m.f.'s/p.d.f.'s but is there any justification? Any statistician has used it as some sort of distance/angle between two measures? What is the relationship with correlation of the random variables that are endowed with these two p.d.f.s?