There are many great posts here on the importance of using an offset in a rate regression.
For example, if you are modeling the the propensity of murder in towns, using population of town $n_i$ and number of murders $y_i$, you might model as
$$\lambda_i = y_i / n_i = e^{\beta_0 + \beta_1 x_1 + ... + \beta_k x_k + \epsilon_i}$$
$$log(y_i / n_i) = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_1 + ... + \beta_k x_k + \epsilon_i $$
$$log(y_i) - log(n_i) = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_1 + ... + \beta_k x_k + \epsilon_i $$
$$log(y_i) = log(n_i) + \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_1 + ... + \beta_k x_k + \epsilon_i $$
The $log(n_i)$ term here would be an offset.
Now, you want to estimate $\beta_0$, $\beta_1$, .., $\beta_k$ using a GLM
In the GLM, do you want to also weight observations by $n_i$ in the variance matrix?
I would imagine that you do, since you would expect a small town, with population, say, 100, to have a higher variance in reported murders, per capita, then a large city. But maybe this is already factored into the GLM in the MLE process somewhere else?
What are weights in a binary glm and how to calculate them? has the following comment as a footnote, but I don't understand it:
Similar considerations apply to other count-based GLM families such as Poisson and negative binomial. You can only set the GLM prior weights for those families to a value other than 1 if you are willing to embrace a quasi-likelihood model.
In another comment a highly-ranked user mentions the need for weights as well: When to use an offset in a Poisson regression?