I have some data whose distribution is a priori unknown. A Q-Q plot shows that the distribution has fatter tails than a normal curve, and when I look at some samples I have available, the excess kurtosis is fairly large and fluctuates a lot, which is the behavior I would expect if the distribution did not have a well-defined fourth moment. For a particular hypothesis I want to test, I have 55 relevant pieces of data, and I want to test the hypothesis that their mean has a certain value. (Actually I'm using the median, but that's a side issue.)
The following is what I did, but it seems kind of ad hoc and arbitrary. I considered the possibility of a Student's $t$-distribution as the underlying distribution for my data. I played around with the number of degrees of freedom $\nu$ and looked at Q-Q plots for several data sets I had available, and in general $\nu=4$ seemed like the best fit -- significantly better than a normal, and better in most cases than $\nu=2$ or 3. So then I reasoned that if it were a Student's $t$ with $\nu=4$, it would have a finite variance, and therefore the central limit theorem would hold. Based on this, I expect the mean of 55 observations to be well approximated by a normal distribution, and then I can use standard tests for that situation. Taking into account the factor of $\sqrt{\pi/2}$ because I'm using the median, this is the equivalent of a 3.1 $\sigma$ effect, which is a high level of significance.
Is there a better way of going about this? What I did seems weak to me in two ways:
(1) It was pretty arbitrary to use Student's $t$-distribution.
(2) I would like to have some way of estimating whether the normal approximation is good enough for $n=55$ with a significance of 3.1 $\sigma$. The central limit theorem is a statement about what happens as $n$ approaches infinity, and I would expect that the approximation would become better more quickly when we were at, say, 1 $\sigma$, and would become better more slowly when we were at 5 $\sigma$. That is, for the mean of a finite number of random variables drawn from a distribution with fatter tails than a normal, I would expect the tails for the mean's distribution would asymptotically get completely different from those of the normal, when you got far enough out in the tails.
Issue #2 seems like it could be addressed simply by doing a little Monte Carlo simulation, but this presupposes that I know the distribution, so it doesn't address issue #1.