The general (multiple regression) case is actually easier than trying to do simple regression.
$y = X\beta + \epsilon$ where $\operatorname{Var}(\epsilon) = \operatorname{diag}(\sigma_i^2) = \sigma^2 \operatorname{diag}(\tau_i^2) $
Let $W^{-1} = \operatorname{diag}(\tau_i^2)$. Assume $X$ is of full rank.
$\hat{\beta} = \left(X'WX\right)^{-1} X'Wy$
Edit2:
A couple of rules related to expectation and variance, for some random vector $z$:
$\operatorname{E}(Az) = A\operatorname{E}(z)$
$\operatorname{Var}(Az) = A\operatorname{Var}(x)A'$
You can confirm this reasonably easily by expanding out both sides and looking at it term by term (keeping in mind that the (i,j) off-diagonal term of $\operatorname{Var}(z)$ is $\operatorname{Cov}(z_i,z_j)\,$).
Edit:
Where $\hat{\beta}$ comes from:
As before, $y = X\beta + \epsilon$ is the underlying (population) equation.
Let $y = X\hat{\beta} + e$ be the fitted equation.
Let
$S = \sum_{i=1}^n w_i e_i^2 = e'We$, the sum of weighted squared residuals.
Note that
$S = e'We = (y - X\hat{\beta})'W(y - X\hat{\beta})$
$=y'Wy-y'WX\hat{\beta}-\hat{\beta}'X'Wy+\hat{\beta}'X'WX\hat{\beta}$
$=y'Wy-2\hat{\beta}'X'Wy+\hat{\beta}'X'WX\hat{\beta}$
We wish to find the $\hat{\beta}$ which will minimise $S$ (making the fit go as close as possible to the data in the WLS sense).
So we do that by calculus.
\begin{align}
\frac{\partial S}{\partial \hat{\beta}} &= \frac{\partial (y'Wy-2\hat{\beta}'X'Wy+\hat{\beta}'X'WX\hat{\beta})}{\partial \hat{\beta}} \\
&= (0-2X'Wy+2X'WX\hat{\beta})
\end{align}
(Note that the second derivative will be $X'WX$, which is positive definite, so it's a minimum.)
To find a turning point, we set that first derivative equal to $0$ and solve for $\hat{\beta}$:
\begin{align}
-2X'Wy+2X'WX\hat{\beta} &= 0\\
X'WX\hat{\beta}&=X'Wy\\
\hat{\beta}&=(X'WX)^{-1}X'Wy\\
\end{align}
\begin{align}
\operatorname{Var}(\hat{\beta}) &= \operatorname{Var}((X'WX)^{-1}X'Wy) \\
&=\left(X'WX\right)^{-1} X'W \operatorname{Var}(y)\, WX\left(X'WX\right)^{-1}\\
&= \sigma^2 \left(X'WX\right)^{-1} X' W X\left(X'WX\right)^{-1}\\
& = \sigma^2 \left(X'WX\right)^{-1}
\end{align}
With $\sigma^2$ estimated, this gives the usual estimate of the variance-covariance matrix of parameters.
Now in your case
$$
X'WX = \begin{bmatrix}
\sum w_i & \sum w_i x_i\\
\sum w_i x_i & \sum w_i x_i^2
\end{bmatrix}
$$
So
$$
\left(X'WX\right)^{-1} = \frac{1}{\Delta}
\begin{bmatrix}
\sum w_i x_i^2 & -\sum w_i x_i\\
-\sum w_i x_i & \sum w_i
\end{bmatrix}
$$
where $\Delta=\sum w_i \sum w_i x_i^2 - \sum w_i x_i \sum w_i x_i$
So $\operatorname{Cov}(\hat{\beta_0},\hat{\beta_1}) = -\frac{\sigma^2 \sum w_i x_i}{\Delta}$
Which matches your formula. That is, looks like you got it right, $\delta_{AB}$ is the covariance of the parameters for a weighted LS line.
However, your approach relies on the $\sigma_i$ values being exactly right; mine only requires they be proportional to right (given we can estimate $\sigma^2$).
When you say "what is the general theory behind $\delta_{AB}$?" I have to admit I'm not sure what you're asking for - do you want its distribution or something? Or just a derivation something like the one given?