How is there a parallel trends assumption if there is no formally defined treatment group?
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1$\begingroup$ Have you seen this question? stats.stackexchange.com/questions/465167/… $\endgroup$– RobertFCommented Mar 2, 2022 at 13:37
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$\begingroup$ What do you mean by no “formally defined” treatment group? Do you mean different units start treatment at different times? $\endgroup$– Thomas BilachCommented Mar 3, 2022 at 18:12
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$\begingroup$ @ThomasBilach What I mean is that the since the treatment is not binary, there is no formal "treatment group" in the traditional sense of the term $\endgroup$– Tushar MehraCommented Mar 4, 2022 at 23:04
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$\begingroup$ @RobertF --> thank you for the link; I think it is addressing a slightly different question to the one that I am asking given that it is looking at multiple treatments as opposed to a single continuous treatment $\endgroup$– Tushar MehraCommented Mar 4, 2022 at 23:05
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$\begingroup$ You could still have a “group” in some sense. Do a subset of units start treatment at a particular point in time? Maybe some policy is introduced, or a new law is passed? $\endgroup$– Thomas BilachCommented Mar 6, 2022 at 21:03
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