Suppose I have a survival data with the variables time
: follow up time, event
: event indicator(1 or 0) with 1 as an event and 0 as censored, treatment
: treatment group (0 or 1) and covariates X1
, X2
, X3
AND X4
.
First, I fit a logistic regression model to obtain the propensity scores. The outcome of logistic regression model is treament
and X1
, X2
, X3
AND X4
are the predictors and obtain the propensity scores ps
for each observations. Then, using inverse probability weighting, the weights wt
are obtained as
treatment/ps + (1-treatment)/(1-ps).
Now, I want to fit a Cox proportional hazards regression model with these weights as follows:
model1 <- coxph(Surv(time,event) ~ treatment + X1 + X2 + X3 + X4, weights=wt)
.
Is model1 same as $\lambda(t|treatment,X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4)=wt*\lambda_0(t)* e^{\gamma *treatment+\beta_1*X_1+\beta_2*X_2+\beta_3*X_3+\beta_4*X_4}$ where $\lambda_0(t)$ is the baseline hazard function? What is the interpretation of adding these weights? Am I fitting weighted Cox proportional hazards regression model?