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Suppose

  1. $f_n(x)$, $g_n(x)$ are convex functions w.r.t. $x$
  2. the optimal point of the two problems $\min_x f_n(x)$ and $\min_x g_n(x)$ have asymptotic normality as $n \rightarrow \infty$
  3. they converge to the same point $x_0$

$$ x_1 \overset{p}{\sim} N(x_0,\frac{1}{n}D_1), \quad where \quad x_1 = \arg\min_x f_n(x), $$ $$ x_2 \overset{p}{\sim} N(x_0,\frac{1}{n}D_2), \quad where \quad x_2 = \arg\min_x g_n(x). $$

Question: Do we still have asymptotic normality for the following optimization problem $$ \min_x \; f_n(x) + g_n(x) \;? $$


Here is an example on how the asymptotic normality and $n$ appear.

Consider data pairs $(u_i,v_i)$, $i=1,\cdots,n$ randomly generated from a linear model $$ u = k \cdot v + \epsilon , \quad where \quad \epsilon \sim N(0,1) . $$ Note that the variance is fixed.

We can do least squares regression and obtain an estimator $k_1$. As $n \rightarrow \infty$, there is asymptotic normality.

We can also do least absolute deviation regression and obtain an estimator $k_2$. As $n \rightarrow \infty$, there is asymptotic normality.

$k_1$ and $k_2$ converges to the same true value $k$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$.

Consider the following problem $$ \min_k \; \sum_{i=1}^n (u_i - kv_i)^2 + \sum_{i=1}^n |u_i - kv_i|. $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Although it's not clear exactly what you mean by "solutions to problems," it strikes me you might want to investigate functions like $h$ where $h(x)=-\exp(-x^2).$ If we set $f(x)=h(x+1)$ and $g(x)=h(x-1),$ we see each is globally convex and have global minima at $\pm 1.$ But $f+g$ has two global minima near $\pm 1$ separated by a local maximum at $0.$ Consequently, whatever you might mean by "asymptotic," it is evident solutions would be focused equally near $\pm 1$ and would avoid a neighborhood of $0,$ yielding a bimodal distribution and preventing them from being asymptotically normal. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 16, 2022 at 15:10
  • $\begingroup$ Re the edit: you still need to explain how "asymptotic normality" arises. This doesn't happen merely by optimizing functions. What is your statistical model and what assumptions do you make about how these problems vary with $n$? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 16, 2022 at 20:26
  • $\begingroup$ I tried to formula a general problem but it is still not clear. I guess it is easier to convey the idea by a simple problem like the linear regression. $\endgroup$
    – Chp
    Commented Apr 17, 2022 at 2:47
  • $\begingroup$ @whuber your $h(x)=-exp(-x^2)$ isn't convex, at least in the sense I'm familiar with. The sum of convex functions is convex: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 17, 2022 at 7:58
  • $\begingroup$ @Thomas You're right--I apologize for mischaracterizing it. (It is log convex.) What matters is that it is smooth and has a unique local (therefore global) minimum in the interior of its domain. With the changes to the question, though, this example is moot. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Apr 17, 2022 at 13:56

1 Answer 1

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Ok, so your example has two convex functions. I'm going to divide each of them by $n$ so they are averages of $n$ random convex functions. I'm also going to write the argument as $\theta$, since it's a parameter to be estimated. I'm also going to assume iid data $(X,Y)$, which is stronger than necessary, but convenient.

Convexity implies that $h_n(\theta)=f_n(\theta)+g_n(\theta)$ is convex. Also, since it is convex, the pointwise convergence (in probability) of $h_n(\theta)$ to a limit $h(\theta)$, which follows from a law of large numbers, is uniform on compact sets. This is enough to ensure that the minimiser $\hat\theta_n$ converges in probability to the minimiser $\theta_0$ of $h(\theta)$. (Well, together with existence of some moments, which I'm usually happy to assume)

Asymptotic normality requires a bit of smoothness. The classical condition is on the third partial derivatives of the objective function, but that's too strong for LAD regression. Write $h^*(\theta;x,y)$ for the function such that $h_n(\theta)=\frac{1}{n}\sum_i h^*(\theta; x_i,y_i)$ -- the single-observation objective function. Assuming independence of observations, it's enough (van der Vaart Asymptotic Statistics Theorem 5.23) that $h^*(\theta;X,Y)$ is differentiable at $\theta_0$ for almost every $(X,Y)$, that $h^*(\theta)$ is Lipschitz on a neighbourhood of $\theta_0$ (automatic for convex functions) and that the expected value $E_{X,Y}[h^*(\theta; X,Y)]$ has a second-order Taylor expansion at $\theta_0$. This does cover LAD regression (under some assumptions on $X$ and $Y$)

Now, if $f^*$ and $g^*$ (defined analogously to $h^*$) satisfy the smoothness conditions, then $h^*$ also will satisfy them, and $\hat\theta_n$ will be asymptotically Normal.

I don't know if it's automatically sufficient that $f^*$ and $g^*$ are consistent and asymptotically Normal (I suspect it would be possible to construct some pathological counterexample), but if you have a proof that the minimisers of $f_n$ and $g_n$ are asymptotically Normal, you probably have a proof of sufficient smoothness that translates to $h_n$ and thus a proof that the minimiser of $h_n$ is asymptotically Normal. And in particular it's true for LS and LAD regression.

There are, however, a couple of complications with this as an estimation technique. First, there's no guarantee that $f_n$ and $g_n$ are on remotely comparable scales, so a simple sum may well be a very suboptimal way to combine them. Second, the combined function $h_n$ will have the same roughness as the rougher of the two functions near $\theta_0$ and the same long-range growth as the faster-growing of the two functions far from $\theta_0$. This is typically the opposite of what you want: eg, the Huber $M$-estimator is set up so its influence function looks like the mean when $\theta$ is near $\theta_0$ and like the median when $\theta$ is far from $\theta_0$.

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