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The Monte Carlo Estimator for some event probability (e.g., for the "failure probability") is defined as follows: $$ \hat\mu = 1/N \sum_{i=1}^N I(\boldsymbol{x}_i), $$ where $\boldsymbol{x}_i \in \mathbb{R}^d$ denotes a $d$-dimensional sample, drawn from a joint pdf $f_X(\boldsymbol{x})$, $N$ denotes the number of samples, and $I(x_i)$ is the indicator function of some ("failure") event.

The variance of the estimator is proportional to: $$ Var(\hat\mu) \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{N}}. $$

Could someone explain to me why this variance does not depend on the dimension $d$. Does this really mean that, for a given $N$, the level of accuracy in 3 and 1000 dimensions is indifferent?

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  • $\begingroup$ I might not understand the question completely and maybe somebody will have mathematically better explanation, but this sounds about right to me. So accuracy of 3 and 1000 dimensions are indifferent if they both have 100 failures, but accuracy of 3 and 1000 failures would be different. For many things we don't know the dimensionality of the underlying process, we can only observe if the failure occurred or not, so it make sense that the dimensionality won't come to play when calculating the variance $\endgroup$
    – rep_ho
    Commented Jul 19, 2022 at 21:08
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    $\begingroup$ You seem to have some implicit sense of how to compare data in $3$ to data in $1000$ dimensions: could you explain how you are doing that? $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Jul 19, 2022 at 21:39

1 Answer 1

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In this Monte-Carlo setup, the indicator function $I: \mathbb{R}^d \rightarrow \{ 0,1 \}$ is defined on the domain $\mathbb{R}^d$, so it already deals with the multivariate nature of the observations and reduces this to a binary output. So, if we have IID observations $\mathbf{x}_1,\mathbf{x}_2,\mathbf{x}_3, ...$ and we set $p_I \equiv \mathbb{P}(I(\mathbf{x}_i) = 1)$ then we have:

$$I(\mathbf{x}_i) \sim \text{IID Bern}(p_I).$$

This then gives the estimator variance:

$$\begin{align} \mathbb{V}(\hat{\mu}) &= \mathbb{V} \Bigg( \frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^N I(\mathbf{x}_i) \Bigg) \\[6pt] &= \frac{1}{N^2} \sum_{i=1}^N \mathbb{V} ( I(\mathbf{x}_i) ) \\[6pt] &= \frac{1}{N^2} \sum_{i=1}^N p_I (1-p_I) \\[6pt] &= \frac{p_I (1-p_I)}{N}. \\[6pt] \end{align}$$

As you can see from the working, the reason that this variance does not depend on the dimension $d$ is that $I(\mathbf{x}_i)$ is a Bernoulli random variable irrespective of this dimension and so its variance is determined by $p_I$. So yes, the level of accuracy of the Monte-Carlo estimator is the same whether you have 3 dimensions or 1000. Note that the only thing that you are estimating is the probability of a particular event, which is not something that gets more complicated in higher dimensions.

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