I am reading Generalized linear models with random effects : unified analysis via h-likelihood Chapter 4 on Extended Likelihood principle. I came across an example and I am not sure if I am understanding joint maximization correctly. Given extended likelihood where $\theta$ is a single fixed parameter, U is a single unobservable random quantity and a single observable quantity Y. \begin{equation} L(\theta, u; y, u) = \theta u \exp(-u(\theta+y)) \end{equation} The support is u>0, $\theta>0$.
When jointly maximized wrt to $\theta$ and $u$, the book says it yields $\hat{\theta} = \infty$ and $\hat{u} = 0$.
My derivations are \begin{equation} \begin{split} \frac{d l(\theta, u; y, u)}{d\theta} = 1/\theta - u \\ \frac{d l(\theta, u; y, u)}{du} = 1/u - \theta-y \\\end{split} \end{equation} I get $\hat{\theta}$ = 1/u and $\hat{u}$ = $\frac{1}{\theta + y}$ I don't understand how the jointly maximized values are $\infty$ and 0 respectively. Do we integrate out the value eg. $\int_0^\infty(1/u) du$ here to get that? Thank you!